Why are so many people assuming Hitler will remilitarize the Rheinland in 1936? Hitler believed that democracy made countries weak and cowardly. If a Fascist France would also form a block with Italy, Hitler would not be gambling so soon. He backed off in Austria in 34.
What's been said but I'd add that
remilitarization was always the plan for Germany but how 'ready' they are to achieve that earlier than OTL's 1936 date is a good question. More to the point instability in France throws a lot of responsibility on England who's more likely to be willing to oppose and early move on the Rhineland especially if they can get backing from some of the "cordon sanitaire" the French were organizing. (Who frankly would appreciate a sign of English support frankly)
Also as I noted it will take a bit of time for a Fascist France to get cozy with Fascist Italy, but prior to 1936, (when Hitler promised Mussolini that Germany would not seek the return of Austrian territory granted to Italy after WWI) and really 1939 (when an actual agreement was written and signed) there's a window of opportunity for France. While there was a bit of a personal connection between Hitler and Mussolini it's not certain that Mussolini will fall into Hitler's orbit. He did so OTL because Hitler and Germany supported his aims in Ethiopia and allowed him to keep the Austrian territories taken after WWI. The main question would France do and promise the same to gain Italian support for containing Germany?
As noted Hitler was after France to 'avenge' French humiliations of the Versailles Treaty, plus the various payment demands, occupation of the Ruhr, etc.
France, even a Fascist one will still want Germany in a sub-servient position.
Well, there almost certainly would be a war between them, considering the Nazis were very anti-French, and the French fascists, whatever group, would probably be very anti-German as they aren't installed by a foreign government.
Like, there's no way France and Germany are gonna be at peace if EITHER one is far-right wing. Period.
France wanted Germany neutralized so it would not be a threat to them again, Germany wanted France to feel the humiliation they'd suffered so the 'seeds' are there but if France can contain Germany short of war, (arguably the strategy they were trying prior to WWII OTL) they will but a more aggressive Fascist France would still need time and money to re-arm for it.
He also knew an opportunity when he saw one. If there is a brief political instability in France in 1934 (but no outright civil war) before Fascists take power, could they make a gamble for the Rhineland early? Not sure if they are in any shape to do so but they weren't really ready OTL either. They can just march a few battalions ceremoniously in there and in will be done before France settles down enough to react. This will give the new French government enough justification to take a more forward stance against Germany and would probably align with Italy and take a hard line against the Anschluss.
Germany is not really in shape enough in 1934 but it might be a risk Hitler is willing to take. He has to consider the down-stream effects when the more militant and (to him) the "stronger" France stabilizes. Doing so without the actual military might to back it up if France (and England) actually decide to oppose the move is very risky, and I think from his perspective it would not be clear enough during the actual crisis on who's going to emerge as the government of France. Especially if its a fairly short affair. Now if it drags out into a kind of Civil War then yes he'll jump on it but his biggest fear during the run up to WWII was France and England actually being willing to stand up to his movements as Germany was about as "not ready" for war as they were. And there are other considerations, see below.
If he does and succeeds then "appeasement" is likely over France will threaten war every time he so much as looks sideways at them. And if France is not getting active support from England over it then they will go looking for support elsewhere and start looking at Britain with the "evil eye".
And then the French retaliate by annexing the Saar mandate.
It was (in 1934) already being run as a LoN mandate and at the time was being run by an English "Governor". Arguably an earlier remilitarization of the Rhineland would automatically lock Germany out of use of the Saar and turn it into a permanent mandate, likely given to France to govern (pretty much annexed in all but actual name) I'd suspect. That literally cuts the industrial "heart" out of Germany as there is likely NO chance now of the plebiscite that returned the Saar to Germany in OTL 1935. So the more I look at it the more I don't see Hitler making that move. He needs the Saar more than he needs the Rhineland at this point, which means he's more likely to use the 'opportunity' to get that back rather than take the Rhineland. Keep in mind that a lot of his "army" at this point were still disguised as police forces so he's got a bit more 'cover' for doing that than marching them into the Rhineland.
He'd also likely have more LoN and world opinion support for such an action.
Of course that's still going to piss off an aggressive Fascist France so Hitler is going to be facing a lot more opposition to any future moves. Frankly I see a Fascist France as more a nightmare for Hitler and the Nazi's than anything else.
Randy