PC: A civilized ancient Celtic culture?

Not necessarily; if we get rid of Rome, Carthage is probably going to fill its shoes fairly well, so Punic would become a lingua franca in the west.
On what ground would Carthage probably take over the OTL Roman world without Rome? The Greeks in Italy would be in a far better position in the 3rd century, plus Carthage didn't really expand for centuries until the time between the Punic wars.
 
On what ground would Carthage probably take over the OTL Roman world without Rome? The Greeks in Italy would be in a far better position in the 3rd century, plus Carthage didn't really expand for centuries until the time between the Punic wars.
No power in the West besides Rome even came close to the level of manpower Carthage mobilized for the Punic Wars, nor displayed such resilience in the face of continued defeats. This is the result of a system of direct territorial control established in the course of the 4th century BC, with military garrisons and appointed governors in Africa ruling a much larger territory than that directly controlled by the Romans at the time, and which rivaled the combined territory of Rome and its allies. This was some of the most productive agricultural land in the Mediterranean. The Italiotes were in no position to take over Italy; they were far too busy fighting each other, and even the toughest of them was never really strong enough to be even a regional hegemon in southern Italy.
 
No power in the West besides Rome even came close to the level of manpower Carthage mobilized for the Punic Wars, nor displayed such resilience in the face of continued defeats.
Having more resources or more willingness in a specific situation doesn't mean Carthage is going to run over the Mediterranean.

This is the result of a system of direct territorial control established in the course of the 4th century BC, with military garrisons and appointed governors in Africa ruling a much larger territory than that directly controlled by the Romans at the time, and which rivaled the combined territory of Rome and its allies. This was some of the most productive agricultural land in the Mediterranean. The Italiotes were in no position to take over Italy; they were far too busy fighting each other, and even the toughest of them was never really strong enough to be even a regional hegemon in southern Italy.
The Greeks in Italy and their allies in Greece managed to almost completely drive Carthage away from Sicily even during a two front war against Rome. Also it's not like Carthage was united in its own backyard, the loyalty of the Berber kingdoms is not a guaranteed thing.

In any case we were talking about the whole of Western Europe, not the mediterranean era specifically, how does the specific situation in the 4th and 3rd century determine that Carthage would likely be as expressionistic and as successful as Rome was?
 
- Let's go with the POD that the heavy plough is invented as in OTL in the first century AD, but not in Han China but in Roman Gaul by a clever fellow who wants to help the heavier soils up north become more productive.
- This turns out to be quite the success; not only Gaul, but Britain as well starts to see a sharp increase in population. Slowly, the same starts to happen in areas bordering the Roman Empire.
- The increase in population leads to land clearances, the establishment and enlargement of many settlements, an increase in trade which accompanies the increase in number of consumers and arguably a cultural flowering under Roman auspices.
- Meanwhile, one of those areas bordering Rome is Bohemia, home of the Celtic Boii, who also begin to fall under the Roman spell. When the Quadi and Marcomanni come knocking, they enlist Roman help and manage to defeat them. Bohemia gets clientelised and given that Bohemia is mostly surrounded by mountains, the Boii (and Volcae and perhaps other Celtic tribes too) have the time to develop their polity. Let's say at some point they spread northwards toward Silesia and establish a presence on the southern Vistula.
- And would you look at that, with the Amber road becoming more well traveled and lucrative, with the proliferation of the heavy plough northwards, the Goths decide to stay put, leading to OTL Poland to become Gothland.
- Other areas nearby inhabited by Celtic tribes, such as the Agri Decumates, parts of Swabia and Bavaria and Slovakia undergo the same increase in population and development. While the plow spreads further northwards to the Germanic tribes, the Celtic tribes have the advantage of being both earlier adopters and already having a more sophisticated, more sedentary civilisation due to being more plugged into the Mediterranean trade network. The Celts spread, like IOTL, to Pannonia, Dacia and Moldavia, but perhaps this time they do not end up assimilated; I can imagine the Anartoi in the Carpathians and Bastarnae in Moldavia managing to reach critical mass before someone invades their lands, while Pannonia is always a crapshoot.
- This increase in food security causes more Germanic people to stay put and those that do migrate towards the Roman Empire are more easily rebuffed and even if they do cross the Rhine, they tend to be assimilated relatively simply.
- While Gallo-Roman and Romano-British culture come into existance and Roman influence is strong, the large increase in native Celtic population is enough to keep Gaul (save for Narbonensis and Aquitania probably) and Britain Celtophone regions.
- Perhaps the Crisis of the Third Century or something similar happens and the subsequent twofold split becomes a threefold one, between a Latin, a Greek and a Celtic Roman Empire. Perhaps the greater voice of Gaul within the Empire leads to more import being placed on the defence of the Rhine. Perhaps said interests lead to someone pulling an Augustus, a Charlemagne and conquering the by now sedentary Germanic polities. In any case, due to the fact that Gaul and Britain are plugged into the Noth Sea-Baltic trade network (their greater development will likely in turn push this network to develop a lot quicker than IOTL), it is possible at some point they go at it alone, because Mediterranean issues are not necessarily theirs. Gesoriacum bcomes the Constantinople of the north. Bohemia, Slovakia, Wallachia, Moldavia and Germany below the White Sausage line develop into Celtic polities as well, everything to the north of that is Germanic, Pannonia is Sarmatian or Alan because why not and Slavic Europe begins in Belarus and Ukraine.
- The heavy plough and increased trade it brought into existence have had distant knock on effects. It's the second half of the fifth century AD, Rome consists out of three distinctive parts. From the north, traders and raiders have started to frequent British and Gaulish shores. In the southwest, the Berbers are starting to raid more and more often, in the southeast, the Arabians have a surfeit of population and nowhere for them to go but to Persia and Rome, while in the east there are rumours of a vast horde heading west. Sounds like a good scenario for an AH version of Rome Total War.
 
Having more resources or more willingness in a specific situation doesn't mean Carthage is going to run over the Mediterranean.

The Greeks in Italy and their allies in Greece managed to almost completely drive Carthage away from Sicily even during a two front war against Rome. Also it's not like Carthage was united in its own backyard, the loyalty of the Berber kingdoms is not a guaranteed thing.

In any case we were talking about the whole of Western Europe, not the mediterranean era specifically, how does the specific situation in the 4th and 3rd century determine that Carthage would likely be as expressionistic and as successful as Rome was?

I didn't say it was determined; I said it was most likely. Carthage had the resources, location, and institutions to make a Mediterranean empire, and by the 3rd century, it took all the resources of Italy united under Roman hegemony to stop them. If no one else can control all of Italy, Carthage is going to have a decided advantage in any war of attrition, and no other Western power would be able to arrest their expansion in Spain, Africa, and Sardinia. Their control and regulation of trade in subject cities would make Punic a highly attractive language for conducting trade and administration.

Syracuse was by far the strongest obstacle to Carthaginian expansion, and it's telling that victory brought Carthaginian armies to the gates of the city multiple times, while the Syracusans were only able to undertake an African offensive once; the longer the struggle continues without the emergence of a unified Italy, the more likely it is that one Punic siege of Syracuse is successful. After that, Carthage would be in a dominant position over the breadbasket of Sicily.

By the Pyrrhic war, Syracuse was no longer able to stand up to Carthage alone, and needed to put itself in the hands of Pyrrhos while Carthaginian armies camped outside its walls. It's true that Pyrrhos was able to defeat Carthage a few times in battle, but this shouldn't obscure the institutional strengths and weaknesses at work here; it after all only took one major defeat to send him packing from the West. Moreover, actually prosecuting the war against Carthage demanded resources on a scale that undermined his control of Sicily. By the 3rd century, Syracuse's days were numbered, and Carthage was stronger than ever.
 

Kaze

Banned
What about the monolith culture / bog bodies of the Irish, Britannia, etc. I would argue there had to be some sort of culture or civilization that decided - "Hey this grassy field needs something new... let us take away our old post holes and build Stonehenge or something". I would argue some sort of priesthood (engineer, scientist, magician, etc - to figure out how to move stone from point a to point b), a some sort of kingship (even if it was insane priest that decides to not do human sacrifice today and puts them to slave labor)
 
Why would Carthage fill Rome's shoes. OTL a pipsqueak state like Syracuse held its own against her.
Because Carthage was almost equally as powerful as the Romans, as is clear from the decades of fighting and hundreds of thousands of dead it took to subdue her. Compare this to the other Great Powers of the ancient world, who often capitulated after a mere handful of defeats, and it's clear that Carthage was much more resilient than any of its competitors in the 3rd century.
 
Because Carthage was almost equally as powerful as the Romans, as is clear from the decades of fighting and hundreds of thousands of dead it took to subdue her. Compare this to the other Great Powers of the ancient world, who often capitulated after a mere handful of defeats, and it's clear that Carthage was much more resilient than any of its competitors in the 3rd century.

Carthage was resilient, but it also seems to have been primarily interested in trade rather than military conquest. Even if the Carthaginians could theoretically have pulled a Rome, then, I don't see them particularly wanting to.
 
I didn't say it was determined; I said it was most likely. Carthage had the resources, location, and institutions to make a Mediterranean empire, and by the 3rd century, it took all the resources of Italy united under Roman hegemony to stop them.
But that was a specific situation, would the Gauls have supported Cartaginian armies if they didn't have an expansionistic Rome to face? Would Carthaginian armies be able to co-opt Southern Italians against a growing power in Italy? Would the state and its backers care about aggressive imperialism or be in the same situation for defensive imperialism to exists as a internal drive like with Rome?

If no one else can control all of Italy, Carthage is going to have a decided advantage in any war of attrition, and no other Western power would be able to arrest their expansion in Spain, Africa, and Sardinia. Their control and regulation of trade in subject cities would make Punic a highly attractive language for conducting trade and administration.
But would a war of attrition lead to a complete takeover of Greek Italy, let alone lead Carthage to fight Italic and Iberian groups? It didn't for 3 centuries of warfare over Sicily, Carthage only became very expansionistic after the first Punic war and we don't even necessarily know what that would have lead to.

Syracuse was by far the strongest obstacle to Carthaginian expansion, and it's telling that victory brought Carthaginian armies to the gates of the city multiple times, while the Syracusans were only able to undertake an African offensive once; the longer the struggle continues without the emergence of a unified Italy, the more likely it is that one Punic siege of Syracuse is successful. After that, Carthage would be in a dominant position over the breadbasket of Sicily.
But there is no need to threaten Carthage or take it to prevent or make a Punic hegomony over the West not likely, it simply doesn't follow, even if the Greeks expel the Cartaginian holdouts it already would put Carthage in a difficult situation and would legitimize the potentially growing position of Hellenistic kings among the city states in the West.

By the Pyrrhic war, Syracuse was no longer able to stand up to Carthage alone, and needed to put itself in the hands of Pyrrhos while Carthaginian armies camped outside its walls. It's true that Pyrrhos was able to defeat Carthage a few times in battle, but this shouldn't obscure the institutional strengths and weaknesses at work here; it after all only took one major defeat to send him packing from the West. Moreover, actually prosecuting the war against Carthage demanded resources on a scale that undermined his control of Sicily. By the 3rd century, Syracuse's days were numbered, and Carthage was stronger than ever.
Just a generation before the Syracusans managed to ally the far away Cyrenaicans and mount a combined expedition to Africa, how does that show that Syracusan inferiority was inevitable from this point on? Given that the Carthaginian almost were driven off by Phyrrus and we could consider such a situation to be at the very least possible in a scenario without a united Italy in the 3rd century, then would we really expect Carthage to go full second punic war on the Greeks in a similar fashion? Would there even be a need to without the kind of peace terms imposed by Rome and the existential threat it created?
 
Last edited:
Just a generation before the Syracusans managed to ally the far away Cyrenaicans and mount a combined expedition to Africa, how does that show that Syracusan inferiority was inevitable from this point on? Given that the Carthaginian almost were driven off by Phyrrus and we could consider such a situation to be at the very least possible in a scenario without a united Italy in the 3rd century, then would we really expect Carthage to go full second punic war on the Greeks in a similar fashion? Would there even be a need to without the kind of peace terms imposed by Rome and the existential threat it created?
I think if Pyrrhus or some other Greek could decisively defeat the Carthaginians on Sicily and solidify their rule, it seriously blocks Punic influence in the Mediterranean. In fact a consolidated Sicily could very well be a big third power in the region. If Rome, Carthage and Greek Sicily play a three-way tug-of-war for a long time, that could give Cisalpine Gaul some breathing room. Especially since both the Greeks and Carthaginians have reason to prop them up, perhaps leading to more cultural influence there and in turn faster development.
 
I think if Pyrrhus or some other Greek could decisively defeat the Carthaginians on Sicily and solidify their rule, it seriously blocks Punic influence in the Mediterranean. In fact a consolidated Sicily could very well be a big third power in the region. If Rome, Carthage and Greek Sicily play a three-way tug-of-war for a long time, that could give Cisalpine Gaul some breathing room. Especially since both the Greeks and Carthaginians have reason to prop them up, perhaps leading to more cultural influence there and in turn faster development.
The Carthaginians would have a strong position in Iberia, West Med Islands and obviously Africa still, so they would be definitely around, but Celts in general would probably feel a lot less pressure in the 3rd century at the very least.
 
The Carthaginians would have a strong position in Iberia, West Med Islands and obviously Africa still, so they would be definitely around, but Celts in general would probably feel a lot less pressure in the 3rd century at the very least.
I assume both Roma and Sicily would like to keep pressure on at least Iberia, to deny Carthage of manpower. If Rome is tied up wresting city for Iberian cities, that would further decrease pressure on Cisalpine Gaul.
 
I assume both Roma and Sicily would like to keep pressure on at least Iberia, to deny Carthage of manpower. If Rome is tied up wresting city for Iberian cities, that would further decrease pressure on Cisalpine Gaul.
I thought we were avoiding a strong Rome altogether?
 
So if we abort Rome (perhaps by keeping Alexander alive) the whole of Europe would probably be using the Gereek alphabet or a derivative of it?
Well, the Roman alphabet is the one who triumphed among the derivatives of Greek, so it would be more correct to say that if Rome is aborted, the whole of Europe would probably using different derivates of Greek.
However, it may also be that Punic-derived Iberian scripts remain a thing without Rome, so at least Spain would not be using a Greek-derived script.
 
Carthage was resilient, but it also seems to have been primarily interested in trade rather than military conquest. Even if the Carthaginians could theoretically have pulled a Rome, then, I don't see them particularly wanting to.
Well, imperialism has its ways to create feedback loops of incentives. It's not like Rome was plotting the conquest of the known world from the start. Carthage was certainly imperialistic IOTL, though not in the same form or with the same intensity of Rome, so a victorious Carthage may develop a desire for expansion that is more Rome-like. However, it seems to be true that Carthaginian social structure encouraged a more limited form of imperialism in that it was primarily the landed and merchant oligarchy that reaped its rewards, as opposed to citizenry as a whole (which allowed the Romans to field large citizen armies for imperialistic purposes, something Carthage was never able to do to AFAIK).
 
I'm going to link to LSCatilina's excellent timeline here. It focuses on what you want, ie a more culturally dominant Gaul, and it is very well researched (in particular, it help dispel popular misconceptions: Gaul did have cities, and it did have writing. Don't take everything Caesar wrote to the letter). However, it is in a hiatus and hasn't got very far yet.
 
and it did have writing
Sure it did but we have only somthing like 800 inscription in Gaulish and hardly that long each, it such a stark difference that ultimately it seems pointless to be technical, especially considering most of those inscriptions would have been concentrated in the southern half near the mediterranean, like I said before the fact even Germans had their own very divergent script in the Roman iron ages shows that there must have been some kind of native writing culture that perpetuated itself but it was still a far cry from the mediterranean powers.
 
Top